| Conducting body | Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC). Official website ↗ |
|---|---|
| Posts | Upper Division Clerk (UDC), Pay Level 4, Stenographer, Pay Level 4, Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS), Pay Level 1 |
| Qualification | MTS: Class 10 (matriculation) pass. Stenographer: Class 12 pass, plus a skill test of 10 minutes' dictation at 80 words per minute. UDC: a degree from a recognised university and working knowledge of computers, including office suites and databases. The qualification must be held by the closing date. |
| Age limit | 18–27 years on 15 February 2022, the closing date of the 2022 round (general category) |
| Domicile | Not required |
| Selection stages | UDC: Phase I preliminary exam (qualifying), Phase II main exam (counts for merit), Phase III computer skill test (qualifying) → Stenographer: Phase I main exam (counts for merit), then a qualifying stenography skill test → MTS: Phase I preliminary exam (qualifying) and Phase II main exam (counts for merit) → Shortlisting at about 10 times the vacancies after the preliminary exam, and about 5 times for the UDC skill test → Qualifying marks in the written phases: 45% UR, 40% OBC and EWS, 35% SC, ST and ex-servicemen, 30% PwD |
| Latest notification | ESIC Kerala region: Recruitment to the posts of UDC, Stenographer and MTS (2022 round) · 130 vacancies |
Last checked . Sources
We could not confirm every detail on this page against a current official notice. Check the ESIC website before you apply.
About ESIC UDC, Steno and MTS
The Employees' State Insurance Corporation, which runs the ESI scheme, recruits UDCs, Stenographers and MTS through notices issued region by region, and a candidate may apply for a post in only one region. The figures here are from the Kerala region notice of the 2022 round, which closed on 15 February 2022 and listed 66 UDC, 4 Stenographer and 60 MTS vacancies. We could not find a newer ESIC notice for these posts, so check esic.gov.in for the current round before relying on dates or vacancies.
Eligibility
Age limit
General category: 18–27 years, counted on 15 February 2022, the closing date of the 2022 round.
Age relaxation
- SC: 5 years
- ST: 5 years
- OBC: 3 years
- PwBD: 10 years
- The upper limit of 27 is for UDC and Stenographer. MTS has a range of 18 to 25.
- PwD candidates get 10 years (UR), 13 (OBC) or 15 (SC/ST), subject to a maximum age of 56.
- Ex-servicemen get 3 years (UR), 6 (OBC) or 8 (SC/ST) after deducting military service from their age.
- ESIC and government employees with at least 3 years of regular service can apply up to 40 (UR), 43 (OBC) or 45 (SC/ST).
Qualification
MTS: Class 10 (matriculation) pass. Stenographer: Class 12 pass, plus a skill test of 10 minutes' dictation at 80 words per minute. UDC: a degree from a recognised university and working knowledge of computers, including office suites and databases. The qualification must be held by the closing date.
Other conditions
- Open to Indian citizens and to the other nationality groups listed in the notice.
- Submit one application for one post. If you apply for the same post in more than one region, only the application with the higher application number is kept.
- Fee in the 2022 round: Rs 500, or Rs 250 for SC/ST, PwD, departmental, female and ex-servicemen candidates, refunded after they appear in Phase I.
Selection process
- UDC: Phase I preliminary exam (qualifying), Phase II main exam (counts for merit), Phase III computer skill test (qualifying)
- Stenographer: Phase I main exam (counts for merit), then a qualifying stenography skill test
- MTS: Phase I preliminary exam (qualifying) and Phase II main exam (counts for merit)
- Shortlisting at about 10 times the vacancies after the preliminary exam, and about 5 times for the UDC skill test
- Qualifying marks in the written phases: 45% UR, 40% OBC and EWS, 35% SC, ST and ex-servicemen, 30% PwD
Exam pattern
UDC and MTS Phase I: preliminary exam (qualifying)
Mode: Online, objective, Hindi and English (English section in English only) · Duration: 1 hour · Negative marking: One-fourth of the marks for the question
| SUBJECT | QUESTIONS | MARKS |
|---|---|---|
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 25 | 50 |
| General Awareness | 25 | 50 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 25 | 50 |
| English Comprehension | 25 | 50 |
UDC and MTS Phase II: main exam
Mode: Online, objective · Duration: 2 hours · Negative marking: One-fourth of the marks for the question
| SUBJECT | QUESTIONS | MARKS |
|---|---|---|
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 50 | 50 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 |
| English Comprehension | 50 | 50 |
UDC Phase III: computer skill test (qualifying)
Duration: 30 minutes
| SUBJECT | MARKS |
|---|---|
| Two PowerPoint slides | 10 |
| Typing matter in MS Word with formatting | 20 |
| A table in MS Excel using formulae | 20 |
Stenographer Phase I: main exam
Mode: Online, objective · Duration: 130 minutes (70 + 35 + 25) · Negative marking: One-fourth of the marks for the question
| SUBJECT | QUESTIONS | MARKS |
|---|---|---|
| English Language & Comprehension (70 minutes) | 100 | 100 |
| Reasoning Ability (35 minutes) | 50 | 50 |
| General Awareness (25 minutes) | 50 | 50 |
Stenographer Phase II: skill test (qualifying)
| SUBJECT |
|---|
| 10-minute dictation at 80 wpm in English or Hindi, transcribed on computer in 50 minutes (English) or 65 minutes (Hindi) |
ESIC UDC, Steno and MTS syllabus
UDC and MTS written exams
- General intelligence and reasoning
- General awareness
- Quantitative aptitude
- English comprehension
Stenographer written exam
- English language and comprehension
- Reasoning ability
- General awareness
Skill tests
- UDC: MS Word, MS Excel and MS PowerPoint tasks
- Stenographer: shorthand dictation at 80 wpm and transcription on computer
What they ask
UDC and MTS candidates sit a one-hour preliminary exam of 100 questions and then a two-hour main exam of 200 questions, both covering reasoning, general awareness, quantitative aptitude and English equally. The preliminary exam only screens; merit comes from the main exam. Every wrong answer loses a quarter of the marks for that question. Stenographer candidates skip the preliminary exam, and half of their 200-question paper is English language and comprehension.
How to prepare
- Clear the preliminary exam with a margin. Only about 10 times the vacancies in each category go through to the main exam.
- Train for both lengths: 100 questions in an hour for Phase I and 200 in two hours for Phase II, with a quarter-mark penalty in both.
- UDC applicants should practise a short PowerPoint, a formatted Word document and an Excel table with formulae within 30 minutes, as in the skill test.
- Stenographer applicants should give English the most time, since it is 100 of the 200 marks, and keep shorthand at 80 wpm with computer transcription.
- For reasoning and quantitative aptitude, short topic-wise quizzes each day on the free Improvam app help you keep pace.
Practise ESIC UDC, Steno and MTS syllabus topics a few minutes a day with short quizzes in the Improvam app.
Photo and signature
- Photo: Recent passport-size colour photo; 200 x 230 pixels preferred; 20 KB to 50 KB.
- Signature: 140 x 60 pixels preferred; 10 KB to 20 KB. Left thumb impression 240 x 240 pixels, 20 KB to 50 KB. Hand-written declaration 800 x 400 pixels, 50 KB to 100 KB.
Source: official instructions ↗
Resize your photo and signature for ESIC UDC, Steno and MTS
ESIC UDC, Steno and MTS FAQs
Yes. In the 2022 notice, each wrong answer cost one-fourth of the marks assigned to that question in both the preliminary and main exams.
Sources
- ESIC Kerala region notice: Recruitment to the posts of UDC, Stenographer and MTS (closing 15 February 2022) ↗ (official, checked )
Checked against official sources on . Rules change with each notification, so read the latest one before you apply.